Friday, December 28, 2012

treatment of citrate toxicity in massive blood transfusion



1. calcium gluconate

2. dextrose

3. normal saline

4. sodium citrate



Citrate toxicity


Ans: 1

Cause: Citrate is the anticoagulant used in blood products. It is usually rapidly metabolised by the liver. Rapid administration of large quantities of stored blood may cause hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia when citrate binds calcium and magnesium. This can result in myocardial depression or coagulopathy. Patients most at risk are those with liver dysfunction or neonates with immature liver function having rapid large volume transfusion.

Management: Slowing or temporarily stopping the transfusion allows citrate to be metabolised. Replacement therapy may be required for symptomatic hypocalcaemia or hypomagnesaemia.

Treatment: calcium (based on ECG changes-Hypocalcemia typically prolongs the Q-T interval on electrocardiograms and may lead to complete heart block).

90% of the citrate found in whole blood products is found in FFP and platelets (not PRBCs).
Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia (whether or not caused by citrate) include hypotension, decreased pulse pressure, arrhythmias, increased LVEDP and CVP, mental status changes, tetany, laryngospasm, Chvostek (facial nerve) and Trousseau (brachial artery occlusion) signs.
Note, however, that citrate intoxication is very rare
Citrate intoxication may be more likely in the setting of hypothermia (metabolism is decreased 50% at 31C), liver disease/transplantation, hyperventilation (alkalemia, albumin releases protons which are replaced by Ca++, effectively lowering serum levels), and is more likely in pediatric patients.
Normally citrate is metabolized by the liver, and a reduction of such activity, ex. in the setting of liver disease/transplantation, contributes to hypocalcemia. Unmetabolized citrate is also excreted by the kidneys
6 units/hour (or 35 mL/min) of blood must be transfused before ionized calcium levels begin to decrease. Similarly, hyperkalemia requires an infusion of blood at 120 mL/min or more

Thursday, December 27, 2012

name some bacteria showing antigenic variations


Antigenic variation seen in: 
1. N.gonorrhea
2. Borellia
3. Influenza
4. HIV
5. Trypanosome


Antigenic variation refers to the mechanism by which an infectious organism such as a protozoan, bacterium or virus alters its surface proteins in order to evade a host immune response.

Immune evasion is particularly important for organisms that target long-lived hosts, repeatedly infect a single host and are easily transmittable.

Antigenic variation not only enables immune evasion by the pathogen, but also allows the microbes to cause re-infection, as their antigens are no longer recognized by the host's immune system.

All can take split thickness graft except


all can take split thickness graft except
a) Fat
b) Muscle
c) Skull bone
d) Deep fascia



Ans: C

Skin grafts will not survive on tissue with a limited blood supply (cartilage, bone or tendons) or tissue that has been damaged by radiation treatment.

The wound must be free of any dead tissue, foreign matter, or bacterial contamination.



If the entire thickness of the dermis is included, the appropriate term is full-thickness skin graft (FTSG).

If less than the entire thickness of the dermis is included, this graft is referred to as a split-thickness skin graft (STSG).
STSGs are categorized further as:

-Thin (0.005-0.012 in),
-Intermediate (0.012-0.018 in), or
-Thick (0.018-0.030 in), based on the thickness of the harvested graft.

The choice between full- and split-thickness grafting depends on wound condition, location, thickness, size, and aesthetic concerns.

STSGs require less ideal conditions for survival and have a much broader range of application than FTSGs.

STSGs are used to resurface large wounds, line cavities, resurface mucosal deficits, close flap donor sites, and resurface muscle flaps.


The surgeon first marks the outline of the wound on the skin of the donor site, enlarging it by 3–5% to allow for tissue shrinkage.
The surgeon uses a dermatome (a special instrument for cutting thin slices of tissue) to remove a split-thickness graft from the donor site. The wound must not be too deep if a split-thickness graft is going to be successful, since the blood vessels that will nourish the grafted tissue must come from the dermis of the wound itself.
The graft is usually taken from an area that is ordinarily hidden by clothes such as the buttock or inner thigh and applied on the wound.
Gentle pressure from a well-padded dressing is then applied, or a few small sutures used to hold the graft in place. A sterile non adherent dressing is then applied to the raw donor area for approximately three to five days to protect it from infection.

Bone infarcts are seen in





a. Iron deficiency anemia.
b.Thalassaemia.
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis.

Ans: C


Proposed risk factors include:
-Chemotherapy,
-Alcoholism
-Excessive steroid use
-Post trauma
-Caisson disease (decompression sickness)
-Vascular compression
-Hypertension
-Vasculitis
-Arterial embolism and thrombosis
-Damage from radiation
-Bisphosphonates (particularly the mandible)
-Sickle cell anaemia
-Gaucher's Disease
-Deep diving.




Bone infarcts are often thought to be in the same spectrum of disease as osteonecrosis
occurs within the metaphysis or diaphysis of long bone.

Interruption of blood supply by intrinsic or extrinsic factors is the cause.

Usually asymptomatic, often found when imaging the extremities for other reasons.

Radiograhs- medullary lesion of sheet-like central lucency surrounded by sclerosis with a serpiginous border "smoke up the chimney".

MRI- key feature is that central signal remains of normal marrow
T1 weighted images
peripheral low signal due to grannulation tissue and to lesser extent sclerosis
periphery may enhance post gadolinium
T2 weighted images
acute infarct may show ill-defined non-specific area of high signal
intense inner ring of granulation tissue and a hypointense outer ring of sclerosis

Bone Scan
cold in early phases
hot in late resorptive and revascularisation phase.

Treatment:
Nonoperative- Observation.

Pseudomyxoma peritonei result from

a. tuberculous peritonitis. 
b. Pneumococcal peritonitis. 
c. Gonoccocal peritonitis. 
d. Ruptured appendicial mucocele. 
e.Lymphosarcoma of the bowel.


Ans: C

This disease is most commonly caused by an appendiceal primary cancer (cancer of the appendix); mucinous tumors of the ovary have also been implicated, although in most cases ovarian involvement is favored to be a metastasis from an appendiceal or other gastrointestinal source.


Pseudomyxoma peritonei is a condition caused by the production of abundant mucin by tumor cells, which fills the abdominal cavity. If left untreated, mucin will eventually build up to the point where it compresses vital structures: the colon, the liver, kidneys,stomach, spleen, pancreas, etc.

The disease rarely spreads through the lymphatic system or through the bloodstream. It is characterized by mucin and scattered cancer cells in the abdominal cavity.


Abruptio placentae is characterised by all except


1-tenderness over the uterus 
2-profuse vaginal bleeding 
3-hypotension 
4-absence of feral heart sound 


Ans: C 

William Obs. 22nd edi. Says- 
Neither hypotension nor anemia is obligatory in cases of concealed hemorrhage, even when the acute hemorrhage has achieved considerable magnitude. 



The separation of the placenta from its site of implantation before delivery has been variously called placental abruption, abruptio placentae, and in Great Britain, accidental hemorrhage.

Some of the bleeding of placental abruption usually insinuates itself between the membranes and uterus, and then escapes through the cervix, causing external hemorrhage. Less often, the blood does not escape externally but is retained between the detached placenta and the uterus, leading to concealed hemorrhage.

The primary cause of placental abruption is unknown, but there are several associated conditions. By far the most commonly associated condition is some type of hypertension. This includes preeclampsia, gestational hypertension, and chronic hypertension.

-There is an increased incidence of abruption with preterm prematurely ruptured membranes.
-Cocaine abuse has been associated with an alarming frequency of placental abruption.
-There is a significantly increased risk of abruption in women with a factor V Leiden or prothrombin gene mutation.
-Abruption caused by relatively minor trauma may cause fetal jeopardy that is not always associated with immediate evidence of placental separation.
-Uterine leiomyomas, especially if located behind the placental implantation site, predispose to abruption

Placental abruption is initiated by hemorrhage into the decidua basalis. The decidua then splits, leaving a thin layer adherent to the myometrium. Consequently, the process in its earliest stages consists of the development of a decidual hematoma that leads to separation, compression, and the ultimate destruction of the placenta adjacent to it.

In some instances, a decidual spiral artery ruptures to cause a retroplacental hematoma, which as it expands disrupts more vessels to separate more placenta. The area of separation rapidly becomes more extensive and reaches the margin of the placenta.

Because the uterus is still distended by the products of conception, it is unable to contract sufficiently to compress the torn vessels that supply the placental site. The escaping blood may dissect the membranes from the uterine wall and eventually appear externally or may be completely retained within the uterus

most common phobia


The most common phobia is
1) agoraphobia
2) acrophobia
3) arachanophobia
4) claustrophobia


Ans: C

Specific phobia is more common than social anxiety disorder (social phobia).

Arachnophobia is one of the most common specific phobias, and some statistics show that 50% of women and 10% of men show symptoms

According to the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) and its subsequent Text Revision (DSM-IV-TR), phobic disorders can be divided into 3 types:
social phobia (now called social anxiety disorder),
specific (simple) phobias, and
agoraphobia.


Specific phobia:

Animal type –
-Fear of dogs (cynophobia),
-Cats (ailurophobia),
-Bees (apiphobia),
-Spiders (arachnophobia),
-Snakes (ophidiophobia), or other animals

Natural environment type –
-Fear of heights (acrophobia),
-Water (hydrophobia), or
-Thunderstorms (astraphobia)

Blood injection/injury type –
-Algophobia (pain),
-rhabdophobia (the fear of being beaten)

Situational type –
-Fear of flying (pteromerhanophobia),
-Elevators, or enclosed spaces
Others

Wednesday, December 26, 2012

Arthritis Mutilans is seen in ?


a. Psoriatic arhtropathy.
b.Rheumatoid arthritis.
c.Spondyloarthropathy.
d.Reactive arthritis.


Ans: B

Arthritis mutilans, is a rare arthropathy of the hands also known as opera glass hand or chronic absorptive arthritis.

Arthritis mutilans occurs mainly in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, but can occur independently.

In Arthritis mutilans a patient's fingers become shortened by arthritis, and the shortening may become severe enough that that the hand looks pawlike, with the first deformity occurring at the interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints.

The excess skin from the shortening of the phalanx bones becomes folded transversly, as if retracted into one another like opera glasses, hence the description la main en lorgnette.

As the condition worsens, luxation, phalangeal and metacarpal bone absorption, and skeletal architecture loss in the fingers occurs.

Arthritis mutilans may be successfully treated by iliac-bone graft and arthrodesis of the interphalangeal joints and the metacarpophalangeal joint in each finger.

Ethmodial Nasal polyps are?


a. Infective origin
b.Allergic origin.
c.Neoplastic origin.
d. Idiopathic.


Ans: B 

Ethmoidal polyps are multiple, bilateral, painless, pearly white, grape like masses arising from the ethmoidal air cells.Ethmoidal air cells are multiple air cells present on medial to the eyes. 

Usually allergic origin 

These polyps are multiple, bilateral and have a grape like appearance. They have a strong allergic co-relation. 

Symptoms: 
Nasal obstruction: This is usually bilateral. 
Anosmia(Loss of sensation of smell) 
Watery nasal discharge 
Headache also called "Vacuum Headache" 
Watering of the eyes-Epiphora due to blockage of nasolacrimal duct 
Sneezing is common as these polyps are allergic in origin. 

Clinical signs: 
Hyponasal voice (Rhinolalia Clausa) is present due to bilateral nasal obstruction. 
Broadening of nasal bridge. 


Medical Treatment: 

Antihistaminics, low dose steroids, local steroid sprays, help to regress the ethmoidal polyps to a certain extent. However, the above treatment rarely eliminates well formed polyps and is often combined with surgery. 

Surgical Treatment: 

Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS): Ethmoidectomy and polypectomy using FESS and microdebrider has considerably reduced the incidence of recurrence. 

Ethmoidectomy: It can be done, external or transantral. However, it is not commonly done. 

Polypectomy using nasal snare was used. However it is not commonly done these days due to higher chances of recurrence, and residual disease left behind.

Monday, December 24, 2012

Anti arrythmics-MOA


Antiarrhythmic agents are a group of pharmaceuticals that are used to suppress abnormal rhythms of the heart (cardiac arrhythmias), such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation.

There are five main classes in the Singh Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmic agents:
-Class I agents interfere with the sodium (Na+) channel.
-Class II agents are anti-sympathetic nervous system agents. Most agents in this class are beta blockers.
-Class III agents affect potassium (K+) efflux.
-Class IV agents affect calcium channels and the AV node.
-Class V agents work by other or unknown mechanisms.

With regards to management of atrial fibrillation, Class I and III are used in rhythm control as medical cardioversion agents whilst Class II and IV are used as rate control agents.


Class I agents are divided into three groups (Ia, Ib and Ic) based upon their effect on the length of the action potential.
Ia lengthens the action potential (right shift)
Ib shortens the action potential (left shift)
Ic does not significantly affect the action potential (no shift)

Class II agents are conventional beta blockers. They act by blocking the effects of catecholamines at the β1-adrenergic receptors, thereby decreasing sympathetic activity on the heart. These agents are particularly useful in the treatment of supraventricular tachycardias. They decrease conduction through the AV node.
Class II agents include atenolol, esmolol, propranolol, and metoprolol.


Class III agents predominantly block the potassium channels, thereby prolonging repolarization. Since these agents do not affect the sodium channel, conduction velocity is not decreased.
 The prolongation of the action potential duration and refractory period, combined with the maintenance of normal conduction velocity, prevent re-entrant arrhythmias. (The re-entrant rhythm is less likely to interact with tissue that has become refractory).
Drugs include: amiodarone, ibutilide, sotalol, dofetilide, and dronedarone. Inhibiting potassium channels, slowing repolarization, results in slowed atrial-ventricular myocyte repolarization.
Class III agents have the potential to prolong the QT interval of the EKG.


Class IV agents are slow calcium channel blockers. They decrease conduction through the AV node, and shorten phase two (the plateau) of the cardiac action potential. They thus reduce the contractility of the heart, so may be inappropriate in heart failure. However, in contrast to beta blockers, they allow the body to retain adrenergic control of heart rate and contractility.
Class IV agents include verapamil and diltiazem.


Since the development of the original Vaughan-Williams classification system, additional agents have been used that don't fit cleanly into categories I through IV.
Some sources use the term "Class V". However, they are more frequently identified by their precise mechanism.
Agents include:
-Digoxin, which decreases conduction of electrical impulses through the AV node and increases vagal activity via its central action on the central nervous system.
-Adenosine
-Magnesium sulfate, which has been used for torsades de pointes.

ARF & CRF DIFFERANCE


ARF- Defined as an abrupt or rapid decline in renal filtration function. This condition is usually marked by a rise in serum creatinine concentration or by azotemia (a rise in blood urea nitrogen [BUN] concentration).
AKI may be classified into 3 general categories, as follows:
-Prerenal - as an adaptive response to severe volume depletion and hypotension, with structurally intact nephrons
-Intrinsic - in response to cytotoxic, ischemic, or inflammatory insults to the kidney, with structural and functional damage
-Postrenal - from obstruction to the passage of urine.


CRF- Chronic kidney disease is characterized by an irreversible deterioration of renal function that gradually progresses to end-stage renal disease (ESRD).
The Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) working group of the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) defined chronic kidney disease as:
 "evidence of structural or functional kidney abnormalities (abnormal urinalysis, imaging studies, or histology) that persist for at least 3 months, with or without a decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), as defined by a GFR of less than 60 mL/min per 1.73 m2.
Note, however, that the above definition is not applicable to children younger than 2 years, because they normally have a low GFR, even when corrected for body surface area. In these patients, calculated GFR based on serum creatinine can be compared with normative age-appropriate values to detect renal impairment

Nerve fiber most susceptible to local anesthetics.


a. A
b. Parasympathetic.
c.B.
d. C


Ans: D

Autonomic fibers, small unmyelinated C fibers (mediating pain) and small myelinated A-delta fibers (mediating pain and temperature sensation) are blocked before larger myelinated A-gamma, A-beta, or A-alpha fibers (mediating touch, pressure, muscle and postural inputs).


Local anesthetics block the generation and conduction of nerve impulses at the level of the cell membrane by preventing the transient increase in permeability of excitable membranes.

Local anesthetics bind directly within the intracellular portion of voltage-gated sodium channels. The degree of block produced by local anesthetics is dependent upon how the nerve has been stimulated and on its resting membrane potential.

Local anesthetics are only able to bind to sodium channels in their charged form and when the sodium channels are open. In this situation, the local anesthetic is able to bind more tightly to and stabilize the sodium channel.

Differences in pKa, lipid solubility, and molecular size influence the binding of local anesthetics to to the sodium channels.




Sunday, December 23, 2012

Anesthetic of choice for status asthamaticus is?


a. Ketamine.
b.Thiopentone.
c.Ether.
d. N2o

Ans: A


Thiopental: Controversy exists over the ability of thiopental to constrict the airways when given in lower doses.
Large doses may block bronchospasm induced by an irritating ETT but increase the risk of hypotension.
Although perhaps suitable for the elective intubation of a stable asthmatic, it may not be appropriate for a patient with severe status.

Ketamine: Ketamine causes bronchodilation predominantly due to its sympathomimetic effects. Inhibition of vagal pathways and direct relaxation of smooth muscle are other possible mechanisms of action.
It has been used successfully for intubation of asthmatic patients and to improve bronchospasm in ventilated and non ventilated patients. Exercise caution with regards to its cardiovascular effects when used with other sympathomimetics.
Many would consider this the induction agent of choice.


Oxygen should be administered to maintain normal saturations. Only those patients with chronic severe asthma and chronic hypercarbia are at risk for increasing hypercarbia with oxygen administration.

It is clear that the mainstays of acute asthma treatment are the b2 agonists. Appropriate MDI dosing is 4 - 20 puffs salbutamol per hour.

Inhaled bronchodilators can be given by MDI or by WN. Considerable drug is wasted with WN as the predominant part of respiration is expiration hence as little as 1% of drug may actually reach the lungs.
A large amount of drug (5-10 mg salbutamol) should be therefore be given frequently (q 15-30 min.).Salbutamol may be given continuously by WN although this may increase risk for toxicity.

Whether intubated or not, the dosing of b2 agonists should be "titrated to effect" using objective and clinical signs of airflow limitation.

Anticholinergic agents, although not first line therapy may be of benefit in mild to moderate asthma, and should be used, in addition to b2 agonists in severe asthma.
In the severely obstructed patient drug deposition tends to be in the more proximal airways which is where cholinergic receptors are located. Ipratropium may be given by MDI (4-8 puffs q15 min.) or by WN (0.25-0.5 mg).
The maximum effect is probably reached with 0.5 mg, although more may be required in ventilated patients.
Glycopyrrolate and atropine both produce bronchodilation if given IV (atropine 20 mg/kg, glycopyrrolate 10 mg/kg), although there is a high incidence of side effects. They may also be nebulized (glycopyrrolate 1.0 mg, atropine 1.2-2.0 mg) which diminishes the incidence of side effects, particularly with glycopyrrolate.


Corticosteroids are invaluable in acute asthma but take 6-12 hours to show an effect - so give early!
Methylprednisolone has less mineralocorticoid activity and is cheaper than hydrocortisone.
Dexamethasone is cheaper again. Doses shown to be effective are 10-15 mg/kg/day of hydrocortisone or its equivalent (120-180 mg methylprednisolone/day, i.e. 40mg q6h). There may be slight improvements with 125 mg q6-8h. Smaller doses may be as effective although firm data is not available.
There is no role for inhaled steroids during an acute severe asthma attack.


Aminophylline is second line therapy. It is a weak bronchodilator, has a low therapeutic index, and a high incidence of potentially serious side effects.
A recent meta anlaysis and several subsequent studies have not shown significant improvement in PFT's when aminophylline is added to conventional treatment (b2 agents plus steroids).
Although it has little additive bronchodilatory effect, its other possible actions including increased diaphragm contractility, diuresis, mucociliary clearance, and antiinflammatory action may offer some benefit. If other first line therapy has been unsuccessfully tried, some clinicians will add aminophylline (loading dose of 3-6 mg/kg, infusion of 0.2-0.9 mg/kg/hr).


Magnesium Sulfate: There are several small studies that demonstrate improved bronchodilation with the addition of intravenous magnesium to conventional therapy. Overall, most studies show only modest improvements in PFT's, and there are also some negative studies.
In the doses given (10-12 mmol/20 min) it appears to be a relatively safe agent and can be considered in those not responding to conventional treatment.
Magnesium inhibits catecholamine induced arrhythmias. In theory it may not only improve the efficacy of b2 agonists, but also their safety.


Cromolyn and Nedocromil prevent the release of mediators from mast cells. They are of no benefit during an acute asthma attack although they may be of use in the preoperative preparation of a known asthmatic. They are devoid of any significant cardiovascular effects.



Intubation

With early and aggressive management the majority of asthma attacks can be managed without the need for intubation and ventilation.
Ventilation can be life saving but there is an associated high incidence of morbidity and mortality. Williams has reviewed 28 publications on ventilation in asthma and found a range of mortalities from 0-38% (mean 13%).
Mortality and morbidity figures seem to be decreasing in recent years with the advocation of controlled hypoventilation.

The decision as to who and when to intubate is more of an art than a science.
--Progressive exhaustion,
--Respiratory arrest,
--Decreased level of consciousness,
--Persistent respiratory acidosis (pH<7.2), AND
--UNREMITTING HYPOXEMIA (SATS<90) ARE CLEAR INDICATIONS FOR INTUBATION.

Hypercarbia, although a marker of severe disease, is not an indication for intubation and ventilation. Studies show that the majority of patients with hypercarbia will improve with aggressive use of bronchodilators.

Recommendations vary regarding the optimum route and technique of intubation. Intubation can be a marked stimulus for bronchospasm. This may be diminished with "deep" anesthesia rather than just "light" sedation.
When positive pressure is initiated the markedly negative pleural pressures seen during spontaneous inspiration will become positive, venous return drops, and precipitous hypotension may occur.
This can be aggravated by induction agents.
Large bore IV's should be in place (some advocate fluid bolusing prior to intubation) and vasopressors should be immediately available.
It would seem reasonable to avoid agents that may release histamine.
A large ETT is preferred to facilitate suctioning and possible bronchoscopy. Once intubated, many patients will require sedation and paralysis.

Thiopental: Controversy exists over the ability of thiopental to constrict the airways when given in lower doses.
Large doses may block bronchospasm induced by an irritating ETT but increase the risk of hypotension.
Although perhaps suitable for the elective intubation of a stable asthmatic, it may not be appropriate for a patient with severe status.

Ketamine: Ketamine causes bronchodilation predominantly due to its sympathomimetic effects. Inhibition of vagal pathways and direct relaxation of smooth muscle are other possible mechanisms of action.
It has been used successfully for intubation of asthmatic patients and to improve bronchospasm in ventilated and non ventilated patients. Exercise caution with regards to its cardiovascular effects when used with other sympathomimetics.
Many would consider this the induction agent of choice.

Lidocaine: Intravenous lidocaine can reduce irritant induced bronchospasm by blocking airway reflexes (1-2 mg/kg). IV infusions of 1-4 mg/min. may also be helpful. Topical application may induce bronchospasm.

Propofol: Propofol's effect on airway tone and reactivity are not clear. There are case reports of its successful use in decreasing bronchospasm in ventilated COPD patients (? direct smooth muscle relaxation). It may be preferable to thiopental for induction and a good choice for sedation of the ventilated asthmatic patient.

Anticholinergics: As discussed above the anticholinergic agents (ipratropium and glycopyrrolate) may help block irritant induced bronchospasm via either the IV or inhaled routes (less side effects).

Benzodiazepines: Benzodiazepines are commonly used for intubation and sedation and appear to be safe.

Narcotics: With the usual caveat of avoiding histamine release there appears to be no major concern with the use of narcotics as an adjunct to intubation or sedation.

Neuromuscular Blocking Agents: NMBs can theoretically induce bronchospasm by inducing histamine release or by reacting with muscarinic receptors. It has been suggested that those NMBs that cause histamine release (dtc, atracurium), or that block M2 muscarinic receptors be avoided in the treatment of the acute asthmatic.
There has been recent concern over profound muscle weakness developing in asthmatic patients who have received both NMBs and corticosteroids. Although guidelines do not exist, it would be prudent to monitor CPKs, and to minimize the dose and duration of administered NMBs.

Cholinesterase inhibitors may provoke bronchospasm by increasing acetylcholine at parasympathetic nerve terminals. Muscarinic receptor antagonists can prevent this, although it may be advisable to avoid using cholinesterase inhibitors if possible.



Ventilation
The goals of mechanical ventilation in acute asthma are to oxygenate, rest the patient, rest the respiratory muscles, correct acidemia, and do no harm.
Most of the morbidity and mortality that occurs in ventilated asthmatics are related to the consequences of "dynamic hyperinflation" (DHI). This occurs as a consequence of severe airflow obstruction leading to excessive positive end expiratory pressure within the lungs (auto-PEEP).
The result is barotrauma (pneumo-mediastinum, pneumothorax, air embolism, etc.), and volutrauma (decreased venous return and increased RV afterload leading to hypotension and shock).

Darioli and Perret achieved 100% survival in their series of 34 patients using the concept of "controlled hypoventilation".
Their goals of treatment were to keep:
1, Peak inspiratory pressures (PIP) < 50 CM H2O (TO AVOID BARO/VOLUTRAUMA)
2. MAINTAIN NORMAL OXYGENATION, AND
3. TO ACCEPT HYPERCARBIA IF NECESSARY.

THE SUCCESS OF THIS APPROACH HAS LED TO MANY RECOMMENDATIONS TO KEEP PIP BELOW 50 CM H2O. Others feel that due to high airway resistance PIP was a poor predictor of alveolar pressures and of subsequent barotrauma, and that controlled hypoventilation decreases barotrauma due to it's effect on DHI rather than PIP. If this is true, attention should therefore be paid to measures of DHI rather than PIP.

Hypercarbia and subsequent acidosis are usually well tolerated.
In theory, respiratory acidosis may cause myocardial depression and increased CBF (which may be inappropriate in a patient suffering from hypoxia brain injury).
The acidosis can be treated with bicarbonate (? treat pH < 7.2).
BICARBONATE ADMINISTRATION UNFORTUNATELY INCREASES CO2 PRODUCTION (? CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE), INCREASES INTRACELLULAR ACIDOSIS, AND CAN POSSIBLY CAUSE METABOLIC ALKALOSIS WHEN THE CO2 IS CORRECTED.

Tuxen et al have described a relatively simple way of estimating DHI.
They measured the volume of gas that was exhaled during a prolonged apnea (40-60 sec) following a normal ventilator delivered tidal breath. This "volume at end inspiration" (VEI) appears to reflect the severity of DHI (composed of tidal volume and trapped gas). They found that VEI was more predictive of barotrauma than PIP.
The most critical factor in determining DHI was minute ventilation (VE).
Decreasing the inspiratory flow rate (VI) decreased PIP, but the subsequent obligatory shortening of expiratory time caused an increase in Pplat, VEI, and DHI.
Slowing the respiratory rate, or increasing VI prolonged expiratory time (TE) and decreased DHI.

It can be misleading to focus on I:E ratios rather than TE. For example, a patient with a VE of 15 lpm (VT1000 x 15) and VI of 60 lpm has an I:E ratio of 1:3.
Increasing VI to 120 lpm will impressively increase the I:E ratio to 1:7 but only increase TE from 3 to 3.5 seconds.
Decreasing the respiratory rate to 12 and maintaining the VI at 60 will "only" improve the I:E to 1:4 but will increase TE to 4 seconds.

PEEP: The role of PEEP in acute asthma is controversial. There are both positive and negative case reports.
In theory PEEP will splint open airways during exhalation. If the applied external PEEP is less than auto-PEEP there should be little increase in alveolar pressure, and obstructed units could empty due to decreased dynamic airway compression. The risk is increased DHI. Overall there is little evidence to support use of PEEP in the sedated, paralyzed, mechanically ventilated patient. There may be an advantage to using low to moderate levels of PEEP in spontaneously breathing patients as it decreases WOB.

Initial respirator settings may be as follows:
· FiO2 = 1.0
· Tidal volume = 6-8 ml/kg
· Rate = 6-8/min.
· Inspiratory flow = 60-100 lpm
· PEEP < 5 CM H2O
· Keep PIP < 50 CM H2O
· Square wave flow (increases VI)

On occasion profound hypotension will occur with ventilated asthmatic patients. This may be a result of barotrauma (pneumothorax) or volutrauma. If due to the latter, disconnecting the patient from the ventilator (apnea) may reduce the DHI and the BP should improve.

After intubation it may be physically impossible to ventilate a patient. The position and patency of the ETT should be determined and pneumothorax ruled out. If severe bronchospasm is the likely problem then adrenaline can be administered via IV or ETT. If related to extreme hyperinflation then repeated intermittent chest compression during expiration may increase exhaled gas volume and decrease DHI


Saturday, December 22, 2012

Local anesthetic that is not used topically is?


a. Lignocaine.
b. dibucaine.
c. tetracaine,
d. bupivacaine.

Ans: D 

A topical anesthetic is a local anesthetic that is used to numb the surface of a body part. They can be used to numb any area of the skin as well as the front of the eyeball, the inside of the nose, ear or throat, the anus and the genital area. 
Topical anesthetics are available in 
-creams, 
-ointments, 
-aerosols, 
-sprays, 
-lotions, and 
-jellies. 

Examples include 
-benzocaine, 
-butamben, 
-dibucaine, 
-lidocaine, 
-oxybuprocaine, 
-pramoxine, 
-proparacaine, 
-proxymetacaine, and 
-tetracaine

pneumothorax is seen in all except

a.marfan syndrome
b.assisted ventilation
c.eosinophilic granuloma
d.bronchopulmonary aspergillosis


Ans: D


Spontaneous pneumothoraces are divided into two types:
Primary, which occurs in the absence of known lung disease, and
Secondary, which occurs in someone with underlying lung disease.

The exact cause of primary spontaneous pneumothorax is unknown, but established risk factors include male sex, smoking, and a family history of pneumothorax.

Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in the setting of a variety of lung diseases. The most common is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which accounts for approximately 70% of cases

Others are:
-Acute severe asthma,
-Cystic fibrosis
-Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP),
-Tuberculosis,
-Necrotizing pneumonia
-Sarcoidosis,
-Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis,
-Histiocytosis X,
-Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
-Rheumatoid arthritis,
-Ankylosing spondylitis,
-Polymyositis and dermatomyositis,
-Systemic sclerosis,
-Marfan's syndrome and
-Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
-Lung cancer,
-Sarcomas involving the lung

REGARDING NITRIC OXIDE IN INFLAMMATION

A. RECRUIT NEUTROPHILS TO THE SITE 

B. ACTIVATE cAMP PATHWAY 

C.ENHANCE VASCULAR EVENTS AND SUPPRESSES CELLULAR EVENTS 

D.NONE.



Ans: C


NO is an important cellular signaling molecule involved in many physiological and pathological processes. It is a powerful vasodilator with a short half-life of a few seconds in the blood.

NO act via cGMP pathway not cAMP pathway.

Nitric oxide, known as the 'endothelium-derived relaxing factor', or 'EDRF', is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes. 

The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, thus resulting in vasodilation and increasing blood flow. Nitric oxide is highly reactive (having a lifetime of a few seconds), yet diffuses freely across membranes. These attributes make nitric oxide ideal for a transient paracrine (between adjacent cells) and autocrine (within a single cell) signaling molecule.

The production of nitric oxide is elevated in populations living at high altitudes, which helps these people avoid hypoxia by aiding in pulmonary vasculature vasodilation. Effects include vasodilatation, neurotransmission, modulation of the hair cycle, production of reactive nitrogen intermediates and penile erections (through its ability to vasodilate).

Nitric oxide (NO) contributes to vessel homeostasis by inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction and growth, platelet aggregation, and leukocyte adhesion to the endothelium. Humans with atherosclerosis, diabetes, or hypertension often show impaired NO pathways

Nitric oxide is also generated by phagocytes (monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils) as part of the human immune response. Phagocytes are armed with inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS), which is activated by interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) as a single signal or by tumor necrosis factor (TNF) along with a second signal. 
On the other hand, transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β) provides a strong inhibitory signal to iNOS, whereas interleukin-4 (IL-4) and IL-10 provide weak inhibitory signals. In this way the immune system may regulate the armamentarium of phagocytes that play a role in inflammation and immune responses.


Nitric oxide can contribute to reperfusion injury when an excessive amount produced during reperfusion (following a period of ischemia) reacts with superoxide to produce the damaging oxidant peroxynitrite. In contrast, inhaled nitric oxide has been shown to help survival and recovery from paraquat poisoning, which produces lung tissue–damaging superoxide and hinders NOS metabolism.

Interleukin responsible for pyrexia is?


Ans: All

In essence, all endogenous pyrogens are cytokines, molecules that are a part of the innate immune system.

They are produced by phagocytic cells and cause the increase in the thermoregulatory set point in the hypothalamus.
Major endogenous pyrogens are:
--Interleukin 1 (α and β),
--Interleukin 6 (IL-6) and
--Tumor necrosis factor-alpha.

Minor endogenous pyrogens include:
--Interleukin-8,
--Tumor necrosis factor-α,
--Tumor necrosis factor-β,
--Macrophage inflammatory protein-α
--Macrophage inflammatory protein-β
--Interferon-α,
--Interferon-β, and
--Interferon-γ.

Friday, December 21, 2012

Hernia with highest rate of strangulation


Most strangulated hernias are indirect inguinal hernias, but femoral hernias have the highest rate of strangulation. The probability of strangulation is greatest in the first 3 months.


An indirect hernial sac is a dilated persistent processus vaginalis. It passes though the deep inguinal ring and follows the cord to the scrotum. At the deep ring, the sac occupies the anterolateral side of the cord. Properitoneal fat often is associated with the indirect sac and is known as a lipoma of the cord, although the fat is not a tumor. Retroperitoneal organs such as the sigmoid colon, cecum, and ureters may slide into an
indirect sac. They thereby become a part of the wall of the sac. Sliding hernias are often large and partially irreducible.


A hernia is a protrusion of a viscus through an opening in the wall of the cavity in which it is contained. The important features of a hernia are the hernial orifice and the hernial sac.
The hernial orifice is the defect in the innermost aponeurotic layer of the abdomen, and the hernial sac is the outpouch of peritoneum. The neck of a hernial sac corresponds to the orifice. The hernia is external if the sac protrudes completely through the abdominal wall and internal if the sac is within the visceral cavity. A hernia is reducible when the protruded viscus can be returned to the abdomen and irreducible when it cannot.
A strangulated hernia is one in which the vascularity of the protruded viscus is compromised. Strangulation occurs in hernias that have small orifices and large sacs. An incarcerated hernia is an irreducible hernia but not necessarily strangulated.
A Richter's hernia is a hernia in which the contents of the sac consist of only one side of the wall of the intestine (always antimesenteric).
Sites of Herniation The common sites of herniation are the groin, umbilicus, linea alba, semilunar line of Spieghel, diaphragm, and surgical incisions. Other similar but very rare sites of herniation are the perineum, superior lumbar triangle of Grynfelt, inferior lumbar triangle of Petit, and the obturator and sciatic foramina of the pelvis

Wednesday, December 19, 2012

Antiepileptic of choice in pregnant lady?


Drugs for which there is good data include:

Carbamazepine - generally perceived as the safest anti-epileptic agent in pregnancy. In all cases, patients should be assured that the chance of abnormality is low

complications include:
neural tube defects - 1% risk
hypospadias
a higher frequency of major malformations, particularly heart defects, neural tube defects and hypospadias, has been reported in children of mothers who took carbamazepine during pregnancy than in either children of mothers without epilepsy (e.g. 5.3% vs. 2.3%) or children of women whose epilepsy was treated with phenytoin.


Phenobarbitone
major malformation rate of 2.4-6.5% has been reported among pregnancies with phenobarbital exposure which, in some cases, was comparable to the risks seen with other antiepileptic drugs or among the general population.
common malformations are cleft lip and palate, and congenital heart disease, especially septal defects
primidone is largely converted to phenobarbital and this is probably responsible for its antiepileptic action
a major malformation rate of 5.7-14.3% has been reported among pregnancies with primidone exposure (vs. no drug exposure OR up to 5.3, p=0.029)



Phenytoin - this drug in particular is implicated in congenital malformation caused by antiepileptics; the incidence of fetal malformations is 1.8% in patients taking this drug compared to 0.7% in the normal population. Common malformations are cleft lip and palate, and congenital heart disease, especially septal defects.



Sodium valproate - associated with a 1.5% risk of neural tube defects. This may be attributed in part to its effect in reducing serum folate, itself thought to be protective against neural tube defects.
other abnormalities include:
-hypospadias
-heart defects
-craniofacial and skeletal anomalies
-developmental delay - there is evidence from two retrospective studies of an association between in-utero exposure to sodium valproate and developmental delay, fetal exposure with valproate is associated with lower IQ scores in childhood.


Medscape says-- 
Current evidence suggests that women taking valproate in the first trimester run the highest risk for congenital malformations, an effect that is probably dose-related. Furthermore, children who are exposed to valproate prenatally had impaired fluency and originality compared with children who were exposed to carbamazepine and lamotrigine. Phenytoin and phenobarbital should also be avoided to prevent adverse cognitive outcomes.

Tuesday, December 18, 2012

Guardian of genome?


Guardian of genome is -------------
a) p53
b) bcl2
c) bcl1
d) BRCA


Ans: A


P53 also known as protein 53 or tumor protein 53 is tumor suppressor protein that in human is encoded by the TP 53 gene. In multicellular organisms it regulates the cell cycle and thus function as a tumor suppressor.It has been described as a GURDIAN OF GENOME because its role in conserving stability by preventing genome mutation.


Pneumonia alba is due to


a.klebsiella
b.streptococci
c.Treponema pallidum
d staphylococci


Ans: C

Pneumonia alba (white pneumonia) is often seen in neonates with congenital syphilis. The lung may be firm and pale, owing to the presence of inflammatory cells and fibrosis in the alveolar septa. Spirochetes are readily demonstrable in tissue sections.

In traummatic disruption of the ossicular chain the most common affected ossicles is


a. Malleus.
b.incus
c.stpes.
d.All are equally affected.


Ans: B

Violent, closed-head injuries, especially if associated with a temporal bone fracture, are common causes of ossicular chain disruption.

A major conductive hearing loss (30-60dB) may result which does not improve after tympanic membrane repair.

The most common traumatic ossicular chain lesion is a incudostapedial joint dislocation with or without a fracture of the long process of the incus.

However, just about any imaginable fracture or displacement can be found. Ossicular dislocation interrupts the normal transmission of sound energy from the tympanic membrane to the fluid of the middle ear.

Hence, under these conditions the impedance matching mechanism, which alone overcomes the nearly 30 dB loss of energy when sound waves in air meet a fluid boundary, is lost. Coupled with the mechanisms surround a tear in the tympanic membrane (see above), the hearing loss is substantial and disabling.


Monday, December 17, 2012

Aldosteron secretion is mainly controlled by


a.hormone from supra optic nucleus.
b.adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
c.baroreceptor in the aortic arch and carotid body.
d.the renin angiotensin system.
e.alteration in osmotic pressure in the hypohtalamic - posterior pitituary system.


which drug is preferred for atrial fibtillation : digoxin or cardioselective beta blocker?

Selective B B is prefered as AF has to be corrected immidiatoly other wise it can land up in to VT .
Digoxin take 3 wk to become at therapatic level though it is more useful but due to time delay B B prefered.


B blockers control atrial rate in AF
Digoxin merely prevents ventricular tachy by blocking AV conduction but AF remains unaffected.

which type of white cell is essential for wound healing?

1>neutrophils
2>monocytes 
3>lymphocytes
4>basophils



Ans: ?Monocytes-More likely (yeah some confusion with Lymphocytes) 
Plz read below-- 

Neutrophil: Critical function of neutrophils is the clearance of invading microbes and cellular debris in the wound area, although these cells also produce substances such as proteases and reactive oxygen species (ROS), which cause some additional bystander damage. 

Macrophages: Play multiple roles in wound healing. 
In the early wound, macrophages release cytokines that promote the inflammatory response by recruiting and activating additional leukocytes. 
Macrophages are also responsible for inducing and clearing apoptotic cells (including neutrophils), thus paving the way for the resolution of inflammation. 
As macrophages clear these apoptotic cells, they undergo a phenotypic transition to a reparative state that stimulates keratinocytes, fibroblasts, and angiogenesis to promote tissue regeneration (Meszaros et al., 2000; Mosser and Edwards, 2008). 
In this way, macrophages promote the transition to the proliferative phase of healing. 

T-lymphocytes: Migrate into wounds following the inflammatory cells and macrophages, and peak during the late-proliferative/early-remodeling phase. 
The role of T-lymphocytes is not completely understood and is a current area of intensive investigation. 
Several studies suggest that delayed T-cell infiltration along with decreased T-cell concentration in the wound site is associated with impaired wound healing, while others have reported that CD 4+ cells (T-helper cells) have a positive role in wound healing and CD8+ cells (T-suppressor-cytotoxic cells) play an inhibitory role in wound healing (Swift et al., 2001; Park and Barbul, 2004). 
Interestingly, recent studies in mice deficient in both T- and B-cells have shown that scar formation is diminished in the absence of lymphocytes (Gawronska-Kozak et al., 2006). In addition, skin gamma-delta T-cells regulate many aspects of wound healing, including maintaining tissue integrity, defending against pathogens, and regulating inflammation. These cells are also called dendritic epidermal T-cells (DETC), due to their unique dendritic morphology. DETC are activated by stressed, damaged, or transformed keratinocytes and produce fibroblast growth factor 7 (FGF-7), keratinocyte growth factors, and insulin-like growth factor-1, to support keratinocyte proliferation and cell survival. 
DETC also generate chemokines and cytokines that contribute to the initiation and regulation of the inflammatory response during wound healing. While cross-talk between skin gamma-delta T-cells and keratinocytes contributes to the maintenance of normal skin and wound healing, mice lacking or defective in skin gamma-delta T-cells show a delay in wound closure and a decrease in the proliferation of keratinocytes at the wound site (Jameson and Havran, 2007; Mills et al., 2008).

Which one of the following statements about pulmonary surfactant is correct?


A.It is increased in the respiratory distress syndrme in the newborn.
B.It increases the stickiness of the alveolar walls.
C. It is glycoprotein.
D.It accounts for the pulmonary lesion in mucoviscidosis.
E, It is reduced by prolonged breathing of 100%oxygen


Ans: ?E

Pulmonary surfactant is a surface-active lipoprotein complex (phospholipoprotein) formed by type II alveolar cells.

The proteins and lipids that comprise the surfactant have both a hydrophilic region and a hydrophobic region. By adsorbing to the air-water interface of alveoli with the hydrophilic head groups in the water and the hydrophobic tails facing towards the air, the main lipid component of surfactant, dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC), reduces surface tension.

Function
To increase pulmonary compliance.
To prevent atelectasis
To facilitate recruitment of collapsed airways.

Clara cells also produce a component of lung surfactant.

Alveolar surfactant has a half life of 5 to 10 hours once secreted.

It can be both broken down by macrophages and / or reabsorbed into the lamellar structures of type II pneumocytes.

Up to 90% of surfactant DPPC (dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine) is recycled from the alveolar space back into the type II pneumocyte. This process is beleived to occur through SP-A stimulating receptor mediated, clathrin dependant endocytosis. The other 10% is taken up by alveolar macrophages and digested.

Case Study: Conclusion- 
Breathing 100% oxygen for 48 hours has direct effects on the amount of surfactant in the lung, but probably no effect on the metabolic pathways which regulate its phospholipid composition. These differences probably occur because of metabolic changes in catabolic processes associated with the clearance of surfactant. 


The tensile strength gain in incised skin wound


a. begins with the appearance of collagen fibers.
b. increases rapidly with the formation of collagen fibers and reaches a plateau at the end of three weeks.
c.often exceeds the strength of normal skin at the end of three months.
d.increases continuously for at least four months.
e.improves with oral administration of zinc.


Ans: B
Tensile strength in incised wound is bcoz of deposition of collagen fibres and max strength achieved is 70 to 75% of normal strength which is due to cross linking of collagen fibres

Saddle shaped nose is seen in


a. Tuberculosis.
b. Syphilis
c. Malignancy
d. Leprosy.
e. Traumma.
f. Rhinophyma.



Ans: ???E

Saddle-nose deformity can be:
1. Congenital
2. Acquired.

Various degrees of nasal dorsal depression can be noticed as a part of individual, familial, syndromic, and racial characteristics. Most saddle-nose deformities are acquired. A common theme in all acquired saddle-nose deformities is a structural compromise of the nasoseptal cartilage leading to decreased dorsal nasal structural support.

The most common causes of saddle-nose deformities are traumatic and iatrogenic.


A number of medical conditions can affect the nasal septum and lead to a saddle-nose deformity.
--Wegener granulomatosis
--Relapsing polychondritis
--Leprosy (Hansen disease)
--Syphilis
--Ectodermal dysplasia
--Intranasal cocaine use leading to large septal perforation and cartilage loss can also produce saddling of the nose.



A saddle-nose deformity is most visibly characterized by a loss of nasal dorsal height. This deformity has also been described as a pug nose or boxer's nose, both of which refer to various degrees of nasal dorsal depression. This often accompanies a shortened nose and compromised nasal support structures.

Other features commonly observed in patients with significant saddle-nose deformities include the following:

--Depression of the middle vault and dorsum
--Loss of nasal tip support and definition
--Shortened (vertical) nasal length
--Overrotation of the nasal tip
--Retrusion of the nasal spine and caudal septum


The prevalence is higher in
--Population groups prone to facial trauma (ie, boxers, criminals, athletes),
-- In persons with a history of intranasal cocaine use.
--In Individuals with a history of nasal surgery (eg, radical submucous septal resection, reductive rhinoplasty).

A flat or concave nasal dorsal contour can resemble a saddle nose and is more prevalent in certain familial and racial groups. Some saddled noses may be more subtle, owing to thickened nasal skin soft-tissue envelope.


why atropine is not given to a pt with cyanosis?

Because--Atropine should not be used until cyanosis has been overcome since atropine produces ventricular fibrillations in the presence of hypoxia.

skin ulceration occuring in association with long standing venous stasis is due to



a. chronic infection.
b.peripheral vasculitis.
c.scar formation as a result of capillary disruption.
d.increased sympathetic tone of venules and capillaries.
e. cellular hypoxia resulting from increased interstitial fluid pressure.



Ans:E
The skin changes associated with chronic venous insufficiency are sometimes called venous stasis dermatitis and are the result of long-standing swelling and increased pressure in the veins.

Eventually the constant swelling, decreased blood flow to the area, and increased pressure result in decreased movement of oxygen and nutrients to the skin. The tissue becomes damaged and the skin becomes inflamed (cellulitis). The skin eventually becomes reddish brown, hard, thick, leathery dry, and itchy.

Melon seed bodies are found in


a. the peritoneal cavity following pancreatitis.
b.a bunion.
c. a compound palmar ganglion.
d. the bladder int tubercular cystitis.



Ans: C
a compound palmar ganglion:
Considered as a severe form of extra-pulmonary musculoskeletal tuberculosis, finding of melon seed bodies or rice bodies is pathognomonic of tuberculous tenosynovitis.

DALE is replaced by PQLI or HALE?

HALE: This is an estimate of the number of healthy years (free from disability or disease) that a person born in a particular year can expect to live based on current trends in deaths and disease patterns. The average number of years spent in unhealthy states is subtracted from the overall life expectancy, taking into account the relative severity of such states. 

DALYs for a disease or health condition are calculated as the sum of the Years of Life Lost (YLL) due to premature mortality in the population and the Years Lost due to Disability (YLD) for incident cases of the health condition. 

So, going by this defination it seems HALE is the answer.